Quiz: Adolescent Sexual Offending: Fundamentals of Assessment and Treatment Practices


(OC104-A) Quiz: Adolescent Sexual Offending: Fundamentals of Assessment and Treatment Practices

Training Title: Adolescent Sexual Offending: Fundamentals of Assessment and Treatment Practices
This exam contains 70 questions. In order to receive credit, you MUST answer at least 56 questions correctly. You may attempt the quiz as many times as you’d like.

1. What is one of the central issues in working with adolescents who have sexually harmed?
2. In the college men study by Abbey et al. (2001), what percentage reported engaging in some form of sexual assault?
3. According to Andrews & Bonta (2010), which of the following is NOT one of the three core principles?
4. True or false? With many kids, punitive approaches produce shame rather than guilt.
5. What does the Risk Principle state about matching treatment intensity?
6. According to Marshall (2005), which of the following is NOT one of the key therapist qualities?
7. In the meta-analysis by Parhar et al. (2008), what type of treatment was found to be most effective?
8. Which of the following is a criminogenic need according to the Need Principle?
9. What is the average age of first offense?
10. In Smith et al.’s (2002) meta-analysis of punishment, what was the main finding?
11. True or false? Most sexual abusers target strangers rather than people they know.
12. According to Letourneau & Miner (2005), adolescents who sexually abuse have more in common with which group?
13. In Seto & Lalumière’s (2010) research, compared with non-sex offenders, adolescents who abused had MORE extensive:
14. According to Carpentier et al. (2011), adolescents with poor self-control tend to do what?
15. What is “Robin’s Paradox”?
16. In the study by Aebi et al. (2022), which type of therapy was favored for preventing sexual reoffenses?
17. According to Caldwell’s 2016 meta-analysis, what was the recidivism rate for studies since 2000?
18. True or false? Reitzel & Carbonell (2006) found that treated adolescents recidivated sexually at a higher rate than untreated adolescents.
19. Which of the following is NOT a protective factor?
20. What are factors with no corresponding risk sometimes called?
21. According to Bordin (1979), therapeutic alliance includes agreement on all of the following except:
22. According to Weiss et al. (2005), what did they find about antisocial peer groups in treatment?
23. Who said “Trauma is the desperate hope that the past was somehow different”?
24. According to Judith Herman, what type of interventions foster recovery?
25. True or false? Miner et al. (2016) found that those who target children are less likely than those who target adults to have insecure attachment.
26. Which statement best reflects the “bottom line” principle about understanding adolescent behavior presented in the training?
27. What should an assessment of adolescents who have sexually abused focus on understanding?
28. In the Caldwell (2007) study comparing youth who sexually abused (YSA) with non-sexual delinquents, what was found regarding 5-year sexual recidivism rates?
29. When using the JSOAP-II with adolescents, scales III and IV should be re-scored at least every six months because adolescents are still “in flux” developmentally.
30. What percentage of programs use arousal reconditioning techniques with male adolescents in residential settings?
31. Which of the following has little or no research basis for predicting youth sexual recidivism?
32. When assessing “sexual deviance” in adolescents, what principle should guide the assessment?
33. Aligning with natural developmental processes will likely produce better results than using a medical model approach when assessing and treating adolescents who sexually abuse.
34. What is the primary purpose of the PROFESOR assessment tool?
35. According to Viljoen et al. (2018), what is a key limitation of risk assessment tools for case planning?
36. In interviewing adolescents for assessment, what approach is recommended for exploring the offense?
37. True or false? The YNPS (Youth Needs and Progress Scale) is designed as a risk assessment scale to predict re-offense risk.
38. Which dynamic risk domain includes factors like “callous sexual attitudes” and “sexual entitlement”?
39. What are the four principles that should guide forensic assessments with juveniles?
40. When writing assessment reports, what does Strunk & White warn about overstatement?
41. According to Burton (2008), what percentage of adjudicated youth sexual abusers reported having been sexually abused themselves?
42. True or false? When writing reports about adolescents who have sexually abused, using terms like “deviant arousal patterns” instead of “aroused by children” is recommended to maintain professional objectivity.
43. What is recommended regarding the validity period for adolescent risk assessments?
44. In the SAVRY assessment tool, risk factors are organized into which three domains?
45. What finding emerged from studies comparing different techniques for measuring sexual arousal in adolescent males?
46. When should evaluators use active voice instead of passive voice in reports?
47. What metaphor best describes the role of report writers?
48. What does the Caldwell (2016) meta-analysis indicate about sexual recidivism rates for youth since 2000?
49. What does the SOAP model in treatment stand for?
50. The therapeutic alliance consists of agreement on all the following EXCEPT:
51. Punishment has been proven to reduce recidivism rates.
52. Which approach replaced the “righting reflex” in the 2023 edition of motivational interviewing?
53. The four tasks of Motivational Interviewing include all of the following EXCEPT:
54. OARS in Motivational Interviewing stands for:
55. Complex affirmations highlight or infer an enduring positive attribute.
56. When providing information in Motivational Interviewing, the recommended approach is:
57. In the Good Lives Model, dynamic risk factors are considered markers for:
58. How many primary human goods does the GLM propose at minimum?
59. Which primary human good involves the desire for information and understanding about oneself and the world?
60. The GLM and RNR approaches are fundamentally incompatible and represent opposing treatment philosophies.
61. Peace of Mind as a primary good primarily involves:
62. Good Life Plan obstacles occur when all of the following happen EXCEPT:
63. Change talk in Motivational Interviewing includes expressions of all the following EXCEPT:
64. When responding to change talk, practitioners should:
65. The principle of meeting clients “where they dream” emphasizes:
66. Trauma can interfere with decision-making and the ability to predict happiness.
67. Secondary goods in the GLM are best described as:
68. The “pendulum technique” (formerly “running head start”) involves:
69. Community as a primary good refers to:
70. A client in treatment has just completed all their assigned homework for the third week in a row. Which response represents a complex affirmation?